Z3D153 Ure Vol 1(air Force )
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Z3D153 URE Vol 1 Edit 3
- 1.Which of the following is not a function of the sections within the career field training plan (CFETP) part I?
- A.
Indicates resource constraints
- B.
Identifies the specialty training standard (STS).
- C.
Explains the purpose of the CFETP and how it is to be used.
- D.
Identifies duties and responsibilities, skill and career progression, and career field path.
- 2.Which of the following is not a requirement for upgrade to 3D153?
- A.
Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153.
- B.
Completing Cyberspace Support career development course (CDC) 3DX5X.
- C.
Completing Radio Frequency (RF) Transmission Systems CDC 3D153
- D.
Completing all core tasks identified for 5 skill-level.
- 3.Which 3D career field installs, supports, and maintains servers or other computer systems
- A.
Knowledge Operations Management (3D0X1).
- B.
Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2).
- C.
Spectrum Operations (3D1X2)
- D.
Cyber Surety (3D0X3)
- 4.Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots and repairs voice, data and video network infrastructure systems, Internet protocol (IP) detection systems and cryptographic equipment?
- A.
Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).
- B.
Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).
- C.
Spectrum Operations (3D1X4).
- D.
Client Systems (3D1X1).
- 5.What outlines mandatory training items that supervisors use to prepare job safety training guides (JSTG)?
- A.
Air Force Safety Outline (AFSO).
- B.
Air Force Safety Instruction (AFSI).
- C.
Job safety training outline (JSTO).
- D.
Job safety training instruction (JSTI).
- 6.Which AF Form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?
- A.
1118.
- B.
457.
- C.
55.
- D.
3.
- 7.Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?
- A.
Biological.
- B.
Chemical.
- C.
Physical.
- D.
Stress.
- 8.Which Air Force program provides a means of reporting hazards that involve flight, ground, weapons, or space safety?
- A.
Ground safety program.
- B.
Hazard reporting program.
- C.
Hazard communication program.
- D.
Ground safety mishap prevention program.
- 9.To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?
- A.
25.
- B.
50.
- C.
75.
- D.
100.
- 10.The minimum milliamperes (mA) of current that result in cardiac arrest and can cause death is?
- A.
100 mA.
- B.
75 mA.
- C.
50 mA.
- D.
25 mA.
- 11.Within how many hours must a medical exam be conducted if non-ionizing radiation overexposure occurs?
- A.
24.
- B.
48.
- C.
72.
- D.
96.
- 12.Which technical order (TO) publication series covers standard Air Force installationpractices?
- A.
TO 31–20 series.
- B.
TO 61–20 series.
- C.
TO 31–10 series.
- D.
TO 61–10 series.
- 13.Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?
- A.
Lower.
- B.
Upper.
- C.
Right.
- D.
Left.
- 14.Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?
- A.
Minimize transmission loss.
- B.
To aid in troubleshooting.
- C.
Reduce potential damage.
- D.
Prevent eavesdropping.
- 15.How are connectorized cables labeled?
- A.
The first label is placed within 6 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second isplaced within one (1) inch of the first label and marked “FROM”.
- B.
The first label is placed within 6 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second isplaced within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.
- C.
The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second isplaced within one (1) inch of the first label and marked “FROM”.
- D.
The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second isplaced within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.
- 16.Which type of label will have machine printed markings of indelible ink?
- A.
Adhesive.
- B.
Special foil.
- C.
Cable sheath.
- D.
Heat shrink tubing.
- 17.Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment?
- A.
Supervisor.
- B.
Job control.
- C.
Commander.
- D.
Flight commander/chief.
- 18.What are the three main functions of grounding?
- A.
Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.
- B.
Signal amplification, personnel safety, and emissions security.
- C.
Equipment protection, signal amplification, and capacitance reaction.
- D.
Corrosion prevention, emissions security, and over-voltage protection.
- 19.The facility ground subsystem to uses surge arrestors is the
- A.
Earth electrode.
- B.
Fault protection.
- C.
Signal reference.
- D.
Lightning protection.
- 20.What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?
- A.
Bonding.
- B.
Shielding.
- C.
Annealing.
- D.
Grounding.
- 21.The RED designation is used for equipment processing
- A.
Unencrypted unclassified information.
- B.
Clear-text unclassified information.
- C.
Encrypted classified information.
- D.
Clear-text classified information.
- 22.Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts?
- A.
Class I.
- B.
Class II.
- C.
Class III.
- D.
Class IV.
- 23.Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic voltage?
- A.
Working at a bench.
- B.
Walking across carpet.
- C.
Walking across a vinyl floor.
- D.
Picking up a common plastic bag.
- 24.Which distinct region of the electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth’s atmosphere?
- A.
Secondary.
- B.
Radiated.
- C.
Plasma.
- D.
Source.
- 25.What source region electromagnetic pulse region has a primarily vertical electromagnetic pulse electric field and what structures are affected?
- A.
Radiated; antennas and bore site feedhorns.
- B.
Plasma; antennas and bore site feedhorns.
- C.
Secondary; cables and ground wires
- D.
Source; cables and ground wires.
- 26.Which of the following statements is true concerning shielding?
- A.
Cables should be of unshielded construction.
- B.
Only ventilation ports are shielded along the walls.
- C.
Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.
- D.
All power lines supplying shielded areas do not require filters.
- 27.Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for short distance normally indicates
- A.
Enemy jamming.
- B.
Internal interference.
- C.
Radio receiver trouble.
- D.
Unintentional interference.
- 28.What type of equipment often generates many spurious emissions?
- A.
Slow tuning receiver.
- B.
Rapid tuning receiver.
- C.
Slow tuning transmitter.
- D.
Rapid tuning transmitter.
- 29.What man-made noise results from voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges?
- A.
Relays.
- B.
Lighting.
- C.
Power line.
- D.
Switching equipment.
- 30.Who is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders?
- A.
The operator.
- B.
Joint Spectrum Center.
- C.
Installation spectrum manager.
- D.
Federal Communications Commission.
- 31.Who is the focal point for emission security (EMSEC) matters at an installation?
- A.
Information security officer (IAO).
- B.
Wing information assurance office (WIAO).
- C.
Information security program manager (ISPM).
- D.
Communications and information system officer (CSO).
- 32.What plays a major role in a conductor’s ability to minimizing compromising emanations?
- A.
Distance and angles.
- B.
Distance and separation.
- C.
Induction and grounding.
- D.
Induction and impedance.
- 33.What secondary cell is prone to the memory effect?
- A.
Nickel cadmium.
- B.
Carbon zinc.
- C.
Lead-acid.
- D.
Lithium.
- 34.What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels?
- A.
Sag.
- B.
Spike.
- C.
Noise.
- D.
Blackout.
- 35.What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?
- A.
Sag.
- B.
Spike.
- C.
Noise.
- D.
Blackout.
- 36.What power line fault category is more typically referred to as electromagnetic interference(EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI)?
- A.
Sag.
- B.
Spike.
- C.
Noise.
- D.
Blackout.
- 37.What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally been referred to as“offline” by technicians?
- A.
Passive standby.
- B.
Line interactive.
- C.
Double conversion.
- D.
Ferro resonant standby.
- 38.What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) uses a transformer or inductor betweenthe utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power?
- A.
Passive standby.
- B.
Line interactive.
- C.
Double conversion.
- D.
Ferro resonant standby.
- 39.How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercialapplications?
- A.
Single.
- B.
Double.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four
- 40.What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today?
- A.
Binary amplitude shift keying, frequency shift keying, and phase shift keying.
- B.
Pulse amplitude, pulse width, and pulse position.
- C.
Amplitude, frequency, and phase.
- D.
Analog, digital and shift keying.
- 41.When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains
- A.
Modulating signal, upper sideband, and lower sideband.
- B.
Carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband.
- C.
Upper sideband and modulating signal.
- D.
Carrier and modulating signal.
- 42.
- A.
Amplitude of the modulating signal.
- B.
Frequency of the modulating signal.
- C.
Amplitude of the carrier signal.
- D.
Frequency of the carrier signal.
- 43.The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude modulated signal is expressed as the
- A.
Percent of modulation.
- B.
Modulation index.
- C.
Bandwidth.
- D.
Deviation.
- 44.Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives
- A.
More total power.
- B.
A reduction in carrier power.
- C.
No reduction in carrier power.
- D.
A reduction in carrier and sideband power.
- 45.The output of the oscillator in a frequency modulation (FM) modulator increases in frequency with each
- A.
Positive half cycle of the carrier.
- B.
Negative half cycle of the carrier.
- C.
Positive half cycle of the modulating signal.
- D.
Negative half cycle of the modulating signal.
- 46.A 5 kilohertz (kHz) modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15 kHz. What is the modulation index?
- A.
5.
- B.
3.
- C.
0.5.
- D.
0.3.
- 47.What is the narrow frequency band between adjacent stations used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping?
- A.
Space.
- B.
Guard band.
- C.
Buffer zone.
- D.
Prevention field.
- 48.What is the advantage of adding more phase shifts?
- A.
Easier detection.
- B.
Smaller bit error rate.
- C.
Better signal-to-noise ratio.
- D.
Higher data rates within a given bandwidth.
- 49.What is the first step in the pulse code modulation process?
- A.
Discrete amplitudes are assigned to the sampling pulses.
- B.
A binary code number is assigned to the sample.
- C.
The quantizer limits the amplitude of the pulses.
- D.
The analog signal is band limited.
- 50.Quantization in the pulse code modulation process is
- A.
Converting a continuous time signal into a discrete time signal.
- B.
Ensuring the input to the sampler never exceeds maximum frequency.
- C.
Placing an infinite number of amplitude values to a finite number of values.
- D.
Limiting the highest and lowest frequency encoded before it goes to the sampler.
- 51.In asynchronous transmissions, what bit is used by the receiving device to verify that the transmission was received correctly?
- A.
Control.
- B.
Parity.
- C.
Start.
- D.
Stop.
- 52.If an error should occur, what transmission is lost in an synchronous transmission?
- A.
One character.
- B.
Block of data.
- C.
A parity bit.
- D.
A stop bit.
- 53.The significance the amount of ones have in a data bit pattern when using vertical redundancy check (VRC) is that it determines
- A.
Parity.
- B.
Transmission rate.
- C.
Whether transmission is synchronous or asynchronous.
- D.
Whether transmission is in American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) format.
- 54.What two error detection methods, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting errors?
- A.
Longitudinal redundancy check (LRC) and checksum.
- B.
Checksum and cyclic redundancy check (CRC).
- C.
Vertical redundancy check (VRC) and CRC.
- D.
VRC and LRC.
- 55.When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?
- A.
Receiving end.
- B.
In the oscillator.
- C.
Transmitting end.
- D.
In the primary buffers.
- 56.In telecommunications cable, the “tip” or “primary” wire color group order is
- A.
White, blue, green, yellow, and violet
- B.
Blue, orange, green, brown, and slate.
- C.
White, red, black, yellow, and violet.
- D.
Blue, green, yellow, red, and orange.
- 57.Two types of network cables are
- A.
Straight through and crossover.
- B.
Straight through and flip/flop.
- C.
High and low baud.
- D.
“n” and “g”.
- 58.An optical transmitter is comprised of
- A.
Positive intrinsic negative and avalanche photodiodes.
- B.
Repeaters, regenerators, and optical amplifiers.
- C.
A driver, optical source, and fiber optic pigtail.
- D.
A light detector and output circuits.
- 59.What is the bandwidth of multimode step-index optical fiber cable?
- A.
10 MHz – 100 MHz/km.
- B.
100 MHz – 200 MHz/km.
- C.
200 MHz – 1000 MHz/km.
- D.
Up to 50 GHz/km.
- 60.Which type of cable is the hardest to splice?
- A.
Multimode graded-index fiber.
- B.
Multimode step index fiber.
- C.
Unshielded twisted pair.
- D.
Single mode fiber.
- 61.A short section of single fiber cable that has a connector at each end is called a
- A.
Pigtail.
- B.
Jumper.
- C.
Patch cords.
- D.
Breakout cables.
- 62.What allows transportation of all active virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link?
- A.
Trunks.
- B.
Frames.
- C.
Links.
- D.
Ports.
- 63.Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?
- A.
Bridge.
- B.
Routers.
- C.
Gateway.
- D.
Repeater.
- 64.Which routing protocol do Internet backbones use?
- A.
Open shortest path first (OSPF).
- B.
Border gateway protocol (BGP).
- C.
Routing information protocol (RIP).
- D.
Enhanced interior gateway routing protocol (EIGRP).
- 65.Virtual private networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an
- A.
Department of Defense network.
- B.
Air Force network.
- C.
Local area network.
- D.
Public network.
- 66.Which of the following is not a function that a virtual private network (VPN) concentrator performs?
- A.
Manages data transfer across the tunnel.
- B.
Encrypts and decrypts data.
- C.
Establishes tunnels.
- D.
Encapsulates data.
- 67.What software do video compression circuits use to determine the amount of change that occurs between frames?
- A.
Pixel.
- B.
Buffer.
- C.
Keyframe.
- D.
Compression and decompression (codec) algorithm.
- 68.Simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for
- A.
Future growth.
- B.
Network security.
- C.
Remote monitoring.
- D.
Network contingencies.
- 69.Which of the following is not a basic SNMP command?
- A.
Write.
- B.
Read.
- C.
Trap.
- D.
Get.
- 70.Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?
- A.
Token.
- B.
Biometrics.
- C.
Multifactor.
- D.
Knowledge-based
- 71.Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?
- A.
Virus.
- B.
Spam.
- C.
Spyware.
- D.
Phishing.
- 72.Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?
- A.
Patches.
- B.
Antivirus.
- C.
Software removal.
- D.
Vulnerability scanner.
- 73.What physical security implementation will ensure continuous operation of critical network equipment?
- A.
Data encryption.
- B.
Virtual private network.
- C.
Uninterruptible power supply.
- D.
Network management system.
- 74.In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network device by disabling the
- A.
Console port.
- B.
Auxiliary port.
- C.
Interface ports.
- D.
Virtual terminal ports.
- 75.When using a multimeter, which option should be used if the display is unreadable due to fluctuations?
- A.
Range.
- B.
Frequency.
- C.
Display hold.
- D.
Minimum/maximum
- 76.When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?
- A.
Properly seat the test lead into the current input terminal jack.
- B.
Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.
- C.
Place the meter in the frequency mode.
- D.
Set the range for maximum reading.
- 77.Which mode of triggering an oscilloscope causes a trace to be drawn on the screen at all times, whether there is an input signal or not?
- A.
Auto.
- B.
Norm.
- C.
Source.
- D.
External.
- 78.Which oscilloscope probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire
- A.
Current.
- B.
Passive 1:1.
- C.
Passive divider, 1:10.
- D.
Active field effect transistor.
- 79.What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations?
- A.
Microprocessors.
- B.
Acquisition.
- C.
Memory.
- D.
Input.
- 80.In real-time sampling, what type of interpolation is used when measuring pulse waves?
- A.
Sine.
- B.
Linear.
- C.
Non-uniform.
- D.
Companding.
- 81.The size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT) is determined by the
- A.
Total amount of bandwidth in the test pattern.
- B.
Total number of bytes that represent the bits test pattern.
- C.
Number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern.
- D.
Number of bits in the number of bytes that are equally divided into the test pattern.
- 82.What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules?
- A.
Cyclic redundancy check.
- B.
Bipolar violation.
- C.
Bit slip
- D.
Frame.
- 83.What type of error is the result of a bit not positioned where it should be?
- A.
Cyclic redundancy check.
- B.
Bipolar violation.
- C.
Bit slip.
- D.
Frame.
- 84.What is the first step in testing ground?
- A.
Place two earth stakes in the soil in a direct line.
- B.
Connect the earth ground tester to the earth electrode.
- C.
Depress the measure button to measure ground resistance.
- D.
Disconnect the earth electrode under test from its connection to the site.
- 85.A known current is generated by the earth ground tester between the earth ground electrode and the
- A.
Grounding point.
- B.
Inner earth stake Y.
- C.
Auxiliary current probe.
- D.
Auxiliary potential probe.
- 86.Voltage potential is measured in the fall of potential ground testing method between the
- A.
Auxiliary potential electrode and the earth test ground electrode.
- B.
Auxiliary current electrode and the earth test ground electrode.
- C.
Auxiliary potential and auxiliary current electrodes.
- D.
Earth ground electrode and the outer stake Z.
- 87.The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) has recommended a ground resistance value of
- A.
5 ohms or less.
- B.
10 ohms or less.
- C.
20 ohms or less.
- D.
25 ohms or less.
- 88.What component of a protocol analyzer stores all frames based on the user configuration inputs?
- A.
Filter
- B.
Buffer.
- C.
Counter.
- D.
Central processing unit.
- 89.What component on a protocol analyzer process the frames based on the selected test and user configuration inputs?
- A.
Filter.
- B.
Buffer.
- C.
Counter.
- D.
Central processing unit.
- 90.What active test is selected to determine if a network node is connected or responding?
- A.
Packet internetwork groper (PING).
- B.
Traffic generator.
- C.
Route generator.
- D.
Trace route.
- 91.What active test is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip?
- A.
Packet internetwork groper (PING).
- B.
Traffic generator.
- C.
Route generator.
- D.
Trace route.
- 92.A radio frequency generator is used to
- A.
Monitor odd harmonics.
- B.
Align telemetry receivers.
- C.
Modulate subcarrier oscillators.
- D.
Check galvanometer frequency response.
- 93.Which are the correct four classes of electronic counters?
- A.
Frequency counters, time counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.
- B.
Frequency counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.
- C.
Frequency counters, universal counters, period counters, and reciprocal counters.
- D.
Scaling counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.
- 94.The 10:1 power ratio represented by 1 bel can also be represented by how many decibels (dB)?
- A.
1 dB.
- B.
3 dB.
- C.
6 dB.
- D.
10 dB.
- 95.When transmitter decibel (dB) power is doubled, it has increased by
- A.
1 dB.
- B.
2 dB.
- C.
3 dB.
- D.
4 dB.
- 96.Which of the following is not a type of power level displayed by a power meter?
- A.
DBm.
- B.
Watts.
- C.
Decibels
- D.
Milliwatts.
- 97.Plug-in elements of the wattmeter are selected based on the
- A.
Selection of the autorange function.
- B.
Frequency and power to be measured.
- C.
1-milliwatt standard and relative decibels.
- D.
Absolute and relative power levels to be measured.
- 98.What test equipment combines the operations of many test instruments into a single compact unit?
- A.
Volt meter.
- B.
Oscilloscope.
- C.
Impedance meter.
- D.
Communication service monitor.
- 99.What function is not part of the communication service monitor?
- A.
Radio frequency generator.
- B.
Analog multimeter.
- C.
Oscilloscope.
- D.
Receiver.
- 100.What operational capability of the communication service monitor produce sine, square and triangle waveforms?
- A.
Scope.
- B.
Duplex.
- C.
Receiver.
- D.
Function generator.
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